RJS Prelims Modal Paper
Q1. Article 13 deals with:
A. Fundamental Duties
B. Laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights
C. Emergency provisions
D. Directive Principles
Q2. Which writ is issued against illegal detention?
A. Mandamus
B. Certiorari
C. Habeas Corpus
D. Prohibition
Q3. Doctrine of Basic Structure was evolved in:
A. Golaknath case
B. Kesavananda Bharati case
C. Minerva Mills case
D. Maneka Gandhi case
Q4. Right to Privacy is part of:
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. Article 32
Q5. President acts on advice of:
A. Parliament
B. Supreme Court
C. Council of Ministers
D. Attorney General
Q6. Money Bill is defined under:
A. Article 110
B. Article 112
C. Article 108
D. Article 123
Q7. Which Article provides constitutional remedies?
A. 19
B. 21
C. 32
D. 226
Q8. DPSPs are:
A. Justiciable
B. Non-justiciable
C. Fundamental Rights
D. Amendable only by SC
Q9. Fundamental Duties are in:
A. Part III
B. Part IV
C. Part IVA
D. Schedule VII
Q10. Emergency due to war is under:
A. Article 352
B. Article 356
C. Article 360
D. Article 365
Q11. Governor is appointed by:
A. PM
B. CM
C. President
D. Parliament
Q12. Panchayati Raj is in:
A. Part IX
B. Part VIII
C. Part X
D. Part XI
Q13. Finance Commission is under:
A. Art 280
B. Art 275
C. Art 265
D. Art 300
Q14. Supreme Court jurisdiction includes:
A. Original
B. Appellate
C. Advisory
D. All
Q15. Amendment procedure is in:
A. Art 352
B. Art 368
C. Art 370
D. Art 360
Q16. Freedom of speech is under:
A. Art 14
B. Art 19
C. Art 21
D. Art 25
Q17. Secularism is in:
A. Preamble
B. DPSP
C. FR
D. Schedule
Q18. Impeachment of President:
A. SC
B. Parliament
C. PM
D. CJ
Q19. Rajya Sabha is:
A. Permanent
B. Temporary
C. Dissolved yearly
D. Advisory
Q20. Attorney General is appointed by:
A. PM
B. President
C. SC
D. Parliament
Q21. Theft is defined under:
A. 378
B. 379
C. 380
D. 381
Q22. Murder punishment:
A. 300
B. 302
C. 304
D. 307
Q23. Hurt is under:
A. 319
B. 320
C. 321
D. 322
Q24. Grievous hurt:
A. 319
B. 320
C. 321
D. 326
Q25. Attempt to murder:
A. 302
B. 304
C. 307
D. 308
Q26. Rape is under:
A. 375
B. 376
C. 377
D. 354
Q27. Kidnapping:
A. 359
B. 360
C. 361
D. All
Q28. Cheating:
A. 415
B. 416
C. 420
D. 406
Q29. Criminal breach of trust:
A. 405
B. 406
C. 407
D. 408
Q30. Defamation:
A. 499
B. 500
C. Both
D. None
Q31. Common intention:
A. 34
B. 35
C. 36
D. 37
Q32. Abetment:
A. 107
B. 108
C. 109
D. 110
Q33. Unlawful assembly:
A. 141
B. 142
C. 143
D. 144
Q34. Rioting:
A. 146
B. 147
C. Both
D. None
Q35. Wrongful restraint:
A. 339
B. 340
C. 341
D. 342
Q36. Wrongful confinement:
A. 339
B. 340
C. 341
D. 342
Q37. Forgery:
A. 463
B. 464
C. 465
D. All
Q38. Bigamy:
A. 494
B. 495
C. 496
D. 497
Q39. Criminal trespass:
A. 441
B. 442
C. 443
D. 444
Q40. Extortion:
A. 383
B. 384
C. 385
D. 386
Q41. Cognizable offence defined in:
A. Sec 2(c)
B. Sec 2(l)
C. Sec 2(a)
D. Sec 2(g)
Q42. FIR:
A. Sec 154
B. Sec 155
C. Sec 156
D. Sec 157
Q43. Arrest without warrant:
A. Sec 40
B. Sec 41
C. Sec 42
D. Sec 43
Q44. Bail in bailable offence:
A. Sec 436
B. Sec 437
C. Sec 438
D. Sec 439
Q45. Anticipatory bail:
A. 436
B. 437
C. 438
D. 439
Q46. Police custody max:
A. 7
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30
Q47. Charge:
A. Sec 211
B. Sec 212
C. Sec 213
D. Sec 214
Q48. Summons case:
A. 2(w)
B. 2(x)
C. 2(y)
D. 2(z)
Q49. Warrant case:
A. 2(x)
B. 2(w)
C. 2(y)
D. 2(z)
Q50. Compounding:
A. 320
B. 321
C. 322
D. 323
Q51. Withdrawal of prosecution:
A. 320
B. 321
C. 322
D. 323
Q52. Maintenance:
A. 124
B. 125
C. 126
D. 127
Q53. Inquest:
A. 174
B. 175
C. 176
D. 177
Q54. Trial before Court of Session:
A. 225
B. 226
C. 227
D. 228
Q55. Judgment contents:
A. 353
B. 354
C. 355
D. 356
Q56. Appeal:
A. 372
B. 373
C. 374
D. 375
Q57. Revision:
A. 397
B. 398
C. 399
D. 400
Q58. Plea bargaining:
A. 265A
B. 266A
C. 267A
D. 268A
Q59. Charge-sheet:
A. 173
B. 174
C. 175
D. 176
Q60. Investigation includes:
A. Police
B. Magistrate
C. Court
D. All
Q61. Res judicata:
A. Sec 10
B. Sec 11
C. Sec 12
D. Sec 9
Q62. Stay of suit:
A. Sec 10
B. Sec 11
C. Sec 12
D. Sec 13
Q63. Res sub judice:
A. Sec 10
B. Sec 11
C. Sec 12
D. Sec 13
Q64. Place of suing:
A. Sec 15–20
B. Sec 9
C. Sec 21
D. Sec 22
Q65. Foreign judgment:
A. Sec 13
B. Sec 14
C. Sec 15
D. Sec 16
Q66. Decree defined:
A. Sec 2(2)
B. Sec 2(3)
C. Sec 2(4)
D. Sec 2(5)
Q67. Order defined:
A. Sec 2(14)
B. Sec 2(2)
C. Sec 2(9)
D. Sec 2(1)
Q68. Judgment:
A. Sec 2(9)
B. Sec 2(2)
C. Sec 2(14)
D. Sec 2(8)
Q69. Temporary injunction:
A. Order 39
B. Order 38
C. Order 37
D. Order 36
Q70. Execution:
A. Sec 36–74
B. Sec 75
C. Sec 76
D. Sec 77
Q 71. Appeal:
A. Sec 96
B. Sec 97
C. Sec 98
D. Sec 99
Q72. Second appeal:
A. 100
B. 101
C. 102
D. 103
Q73. Review:
A. Sec 114
B. Sec 115
C. Sec 116
D. Sec 117
Q74. Revision:
A. Sec 115
B. Sec 114
C. Sec 116
D. Sec 117
Q75. Inherent powers:
A. Sec 151
B. Sec 152
C. Sec 153
D. Sec 154
Q76. Caveat:
A. Sec 148A
B. Sec 149
C. Sec 150
D. Sec 151
Q77. Summons:
A. Order 5
B. Order 6
C. Order 7
D. Order 8
Q78. Plaint:
A. Order 7
B. Order 6
C. Order 8
D. Order 9
Q79. Written statement:
A. Order 8
B. Order 7
C. Order 9
D. Order 10
Q80. Appearance of parties:
A. Order 9
B. Order 8
C. Order 7
D. Order 6
Q81. Evidence Act came in:
A. 1872
B. 1860
C. 1908
D. 1950
Q82. Relevant facts:
A. Sec 5
B. Sec 6
C. Sec 7
D. Sec 8
Q83. Admission:
A. Sec 17
B. Sec 18
C. Sec 19
D. Sec 20
Q84. Confession:
A. Sec 24
B. Sec 25
C. Sec 26
D. All
Q85. Burden of proof:
A. Sec 101
B. Sec 102
C. Sec 103
D. Sec 104
Q86. Estoppel:
A. Sec 115
B. Sec 116
C. Sec 117
D. Sec 118
Q87. Contract defined:
A. Sec 2(h)
B. Sec 2(a)
C. Sec 2(b)
D. Sec 10
Q88. Void agreement:
A. Sec 2(g)
B. Sec 2(h)
C. Sec 2(i)
D. Sec 2(j)
Q89. Free consent:
A. Sec 13
B. Sec 14
C. Sec 15
D. Sec 16
Q90. Consideration:
A. Sec 2(d)
B. Sec 10
C. Sec 25
D. Sec 23
Q91. Bailment:
A. Sec 148
B. Sec 149
C. Sec 150
D. Sec 151
Q92. Agency:
A. Sec 182
B. Sec 183
C. Sec 184
D. Sec 185
Q93. Specific Relief Act deals with:
A. Contracts
B. Remedies
C. Torts
D. Crimes
Q94. Limitation Act:
A. 1963
B. 1950
C. 1947
D. 1972
Q95. Arbitration Act:
A. 1996
B. 1986
C. 2000
D. 2010
Q96. Negotiable Instruments Act:
A. 1881
B. 1872
C. 1860
D. 1908
Q97. Cheque defined:
A. Sec 5
B. Sec 6
C. Sec 7
D. Sec 8
Q98. Consumer Protection Act (new):
A. 2019
B. 2018
C. 2020
D. 2021
Q 99. Information Technology Act:
A. 2000
B. 2005
C. 2010
D. 2015
Q100. Legal Services Authority Act:
A. 1987
B. 1986
C. 1990
D. 1995
Ans 1: B Ans 2: C Ans 3: B Ans 4: C Ans 5: C Ans 6: A
Ans 7: C Ans 8: B Ans 9: C Ans10: A Ans 11: C Ans 12: A
Ans 13: A Ans 14: D Ans 15: B Ans 16: B Ans 17: A Ans 18: B
Ans 19: A Ans 20: B Ans21: A Ans 22: B Ans 23: A Ans 24: B
Ans 25: C Ans 26: A Ans 27: D Ans 28: A Ans 29: A Ans 30: C
Ans 31: A Ans 32: A Ans 33: A Ans 34: C Ans 35: A Ans 36: B
Ans 37: A Ans 38: A Ans 39: A Ans 40: A Ans 41: A Ans 42: A
Ans 43: B Ans 44: A Ans 45: C Ans 46: C Ans 47: A Ans 48: A
Ans 49: A Ans 50: A Ans 51: B Ans 52: B Ans 53: A Ans 54: A
Ans 55: B Ans 56: A Ans 57: A Ans 58: A Ans 59: A Ans 60: A
Ans 61: B Ans 62: A Ans 63: A Ans 64: A Ans 65: A Ans 66: A
Ans 67: A Ans 68: A Ans 69: A Ans 70: A Ans 71: A Ans 72: A
Ans 73: A Ans 74: A Ans 75: A Ans 76: A Ans 77: A Ans 78: A
Ans 79: A Ans 80: A Ans 81: A Ans 82: A Ans 83: A Ans 84: D
Ans 85: A Ans 86: A Ans 87: A Ans 88: A Ans 89: B Ans 90: A
Ans 91: A Ans 92: A Ans 93: B Ans 94: A Ans 95: A Ans 96: A
Ans 97: B Ans 98: A Ans 99: A Ans 100: A
